This post is about the two "Gods" of the Christians.
In the old testament, "God" is translated from the hebrew word "Elohim", yet in the new testament, the greek "Theos" was chosen to be God. Are these two different, or can they represent the same thing?
Definately not, if you want to acknowledge the fact that Theos is Singular and Elohim is Plural...
The first time the word Elohim is mentioned in scripture is in (Genesis 1:1). This word, which appears 2250 times in the Old Testament, is translated "God" when used in reference to the creatures named iahweh and asherah, but it is also translated "god" when used in reference to the christian idea of "false gods", in reference to human beings, angels, judges, "might" in reference to a human prince, and to thunder, and "great": in reference to Rachel's competition with her sister.
To avoid confusion; In the Bible, Jesus spoke of an immaterial essence, an underlying force of all things, a connection which held the universe together, an omnipresent life force, a part of all reality, and something within us all, known as Theos.
The old testament spoke of El(ohim) [A plural group of El:"great one(s)"], of which "yahweh" and "ashtoreth"(the consort of yahweh) were both members, and they were considered "the true god, and his consort". These Elohim were obviously not "immaterial" or "omnipresent" in the way they dealt with humankind.
An omnipresent, omniscient, disembodied being like Theos would not write things in stone, burn bushes, cause plagues, give technology like stick-snakes, travel in a pillar of fire/smoke, or cause floods on a single planet for the benefit of a particular group of a single species or single person. It wouldn't have the need to. Why should it? It's everywhere in the universe.
It most certainly wouldn't do the type of DNA experimentation necessary to create Adam, or for that matter, Eve. But it specifically states in Genesis that Adam had to have "a deep sleep" put over him (like doctors do today to perform surgery). An omnipresent omniscient being like Theos, if Theos even HAD the desire to create a being like Adam on Earth, would simply *know* his DNA blueprint, and would make Eve the same way.
But Elohim didn't have that option. Being a group of beings rather than an omniscient omnipresence, Elohim had to commit surgery in the normal physical way, causing a deep sleep unto adam, and removing bone marrow, where the richest DNA could be found.
Exodus 22:9 contains this puzzling command:
"In any case of disputed ownership involving ox, donkey, sheep, clothing, or any other loss, of which one party says, 'This is mine,' the case of both parties shall come before elohim; the one whom elohim condemns shall pay double to the other."
What does it mean for the disputants to come "before Elohim"? Since Theos is omnipresent, everyplace you can go is "before Theos". Elohim (At least, Yahweh and Asherah) must be physical. This post is about the two "Gods" of the Christians.
In the old testament, "God" is translated from the hebrew word "Elohim", yet in the new testament, the greek "Theos" was chosen to be God. Are these two different, or can they represent the same thing?
Definately not, if you want to acknowledge the fact that Theos is Singular and Elohim is Plural...
The first time the word Elohim is mentioned in scripture is in (Genesis 1:1). This word, which appears 2250 times in the Old Testament, is translated "God" when used in reference to the creatures named iahweh and asherah, but it is also translated "god" when used in reference to the christian idea of "false gods", in reference to human beings, angels, judges, "might" in reference to a human prince, and to thunder, and "great": in reference to Rachel's competition with her sister.
To avoid confusion; In the Bible, Jesus spoke of an immaterial essence, an underlying force of all things, a connection which held the universe together, an omnipresent life force, a part of all reality, and something within us all, known as Theos.
The old testament spoke of El(ohim) [A plural group of El:"great one(s)"], of which "yahweh" and "ashtoreth"(the consort of yahweh) were both members, and they were considered "the true god, and his consort". These Elohim were obviously not "immaterial" or "omnipresent" in the way they dealt with humankind.
An omnipresent, omniscient, disembodied being like Theos would not write things in stone, burn bushes, cause plagues, give technology like stick-snakes, travel in a pillar of fire/smoke, or cause floods on a single planet for the benefit of a particular group of a single species or single person. It wouldn't have the need to. Why should it? It's everywhere in the universe.
It most certainly wouldn't do the type of DNA experimentation necessary to create Adam, or for that matter, Eve. But it specifically states in Genesis that Adam had to have "a deep sleep" put over him (like doctors do today to perform surgery). An omnipresent omniscient being like Theos, if Theos even HAD the desire to create a being like Adam on Earth, would simply *know* his DNA blueprint, and would make Eve the same way.
But Elohim didn't have that option. Being a group of beings rather than an omniscient omnipresence, Elohim had to commit surgery in the normal physical way, causing a deep sleep unto adam, and removing bone marrow, where the richest DNA could be found.
Exodus 22:9 contains this puzzling command:
"In any case of disputed ownership involving ox, donkey, sheep, clothing, or any other loss, of which one party says, 'This is mine,' the case of both parties shall come before elohim; the one whom elohim condemns shall pay double to the other."
What does it mean for the disputants to come "before Elohim"? Since Theos is omnipresent, everyplace you can go is "before Theos". Elohim (At least, Yahweh and Asherah) must be physical. |
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